Again the GOP never ceases to amaze me, of course people will suggest that this statement isn't racist (or part of a White Supremacist sociological worldview) but a statement of "fact". Let's look at this statement: "Slavery had a disastrous impact on African-American families, yet sadly a child born into slavery in 1860 was more likely to be raised by his mother and father in a two-parent household than was an African-American baby born after the election of the USA's first African-American President."
Disingenous at best, tactless, reaching and ridicules in my opinion. Being fair, THIS IS THE LINK TO THE PLEDGE AS IT READS NOW So someone was smart enough to remove that statement, the question is, why was it there in the first place?
The GOP seems to always comment on issues in an African American community that for the most part they do not interact with, so who are they talking too when they are speaking about issues likes this, "affirmative action", "Slavery", "racism", "urban poverty / entitlements". They are not talking to the greater African American community, so I can only assume they are talking too their base, and as such trying to fuel their sensibilites about race not the actual problems that they say they are "outlining" or identifing for the African American community.
Fact is, yes, pre marital sex and children being made out of wedloc is an issue for not just the African American community but the greater American community as well; however, to reference slavery was so over the top it just goes more to the reason that no matter how much I agree with many points of the GOP's platform, I cannot ever in good concisous be a part of the self described "Conservative / Rightwing" groups.
I'm just saying...